Hello all, non-Lakers fan here. I'm wondering what the consensus among fans is about the Bynum/Berea flagrant foul in game 4, and what type of penalty should result.
My take is that the play was "dirty":
Was it related to the game of basketball? No, Bynum made no attempt to make a (legal) basketball play
Was it reckless? Yes, Bynum know that the chance of injury was extremely high
Was it related to the larger series/season? No - the game and the season were effectively over. This wasn't a "message" foul ala a 'brushback' pitch in baseball, designed to change how the game tactically. It was just a hit.
Is this a pattern of behavior? Yes, Bynum made the same play against Gerald Wallace in 2009 and Michael Beasley earlier this season. He was not suspended for the Wallace foul (in which he suffered a collapsed lung and missed 20 days) and was suspended for 2 games in the Beasley incident (Beasley was not injured).
My guess is that he'll get 10 to 15 games. I'd like hear the arguments for less, or more, or if you think that's right on.